Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 04:02
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What are some of the craziest laws around the world?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.